Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Banyai AT t-online.de (Michael Banyai)]

Dear Peter Kirk,

this sounds like a very nice logical argument:

> I continue to reject this conclusion. Firstly, the premise is not true 
> as there are differences in style and language. But even if it were 
> true, there is nothing to stop skilled authors in later centuries and 
> quite different places from deliberately mimicking the style of the 
> earlier books. To show this, consider that a skilled writer in America 
> could today produce texts which are stylistically identical to 
> Shakespeare (I don't say with the same artistic merit), but that does 
> not prove that they were written in 16th-17th century England.


But where is the equivalent for this than given in the case of biblical 
literature. If it should be as you assume of a later date and copying some 
older prestigious models, where are these models "Vorbilder" we know nothing 
of?

Since this kind of literature ought have existed at the time point of the 
creation of that "later" biblical material, where has the illustrous model 
disappeared and why?

All the best,

Bányai Michael
Stuttgart