Biblical Hebrew Forum

["UUC" <unikom AT paco.net>]

Dear Liz,


> > masc "he would have seen" refers to a perfectly masculine waw just
before,
> > in nafsho
> So, even if you regard tasim as third person feminine,
> you could still envision a switch to masculine because of
> the waw?
> OK.
There is no switch. Everything is in order. What is the problem of having
two antecedents in a phrase?

> It's "he will see" of course.
> They don't even have tenses like "he would have seen" in
> Modern Hebrew, let alone Biblical.
This is a news for me. Of course they do. People just don't prefer to read
Tanakh thus.


Best regards,

Vadim