Biblical Hebrew Forum

["wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>]

Dear Vadim,

I have been following these discussions, with interest, right from the
beginning.  I will say that I am not a scholar in hebrew,  neither have I
any expertise behind me - so it will be easy for anybody to refute what I
might say.  However please allow me to interject on this one point that you
make with a 'rationalised' observation:  It appears clear for me, at least,
that this passage WAS prophetic at the time of writing; an observation, in
its simplicity, founded upon logical historical context of the time.

Respectfully - Chris



Vadim wrote:

> But isn't the concept of the "prophetic perfect" based on the
> assumption
> that this is, indeed, a prophecy? You won't apply prophetic
> perfect to a
> non-charged text, say, in a letter or on a jar, right?

An interesting question, and part of a paper I am currently preparing. The
following text might have been in a jar:
)WDKH )DWNY KY PDYTH NP$Y M$XT WM$)WL )BDWN H(LYTNY LRWM (WLM
אודכה אדוני כי פדיתה נפשי משחת ומשאול אבדון העליתני לרום עולם

At least one prominent scholar has called these perfects prophetic. Others
disagree. What do you all think? Had the salvific action been realized or
was it expected in the future? (P.S. I can supply more context if you're
interested and do not recognize the text.)

Ken Penner
McMaster/Hebrew


_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew