Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Ken Penner" <pennerkm AT mcmaster.ca>]

Vadim wrote:

> But isn't the concept of the "prophetic perfect" based on the 
> assumption
> that this is, indeed, a prophecy? You won't apply prophetic 
> perfect to a
> non-charged text, say, in a letter or on a jar, right?

An interesting question, and part of a paper I am currently preparing. The
following text might have been in a jar:
)WDKH )DWNY KY PDYTH NP$Y M$XT WM$)WL )BDWN H(LYTNY LRWM (WLM
אודכה אדוני כי פדיתה נפשי משחת ומשאול אבדון העליתני לרום עולם 

At least one prominent scholar has called these perfects prophetic. Others
disagree. What do you all think? Had the salvific action been realized or
was it expected in the future? (P.S. I can supply more context if you're
interested and do not recognize the text.)

Ken Penner
McMaster/Hebrew