Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

If the Sheva in "lishmu)el" (e.g. 1Sam 3:9) is silent, preceded by a short
Hiriq, why should the Sheva in "ushmu)el" (vs. 7) be different? My feeling
is that we can treat the Shuruq, when Not preceded by a consonant, as a
short vowel. As Peter (I think) has pointed out, the unpointed text had the
Vav already there, probably originally pronounced "w".

Yigal
----- Original Message -----
From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
To: "Trevor Peterson" <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>
Cc: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Monday, January 26, 2004 3:30 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] shewa following conjunctive waw


> On 26/01/2004 04:17, Trevor Peterson wrote:
>
> >>===== Original Message From "Jason Hare" <jason AT hareplay.com> =====
> >>I have to agree with George (gfsomsel). I think it is indeed vocal. The
> >>shurek is a long vowel, so it would indicate that it is NOT a closed
> >>syllable.
> >>
> >>
> >
> >How do you know it's long? Shurek is nothing more than a kubutz when a
vav is
> >present. Granted, in a lot of cases vav as a mater marks long-u, but I'll
> >point out again that this is an odd case.
> >
> >Trevor Peterson
> >CUA/Semitics
> >
> >
> >
> >
> I wonder if this initial shuruq was originally consonantal vav (still
> with a w sound) pointed with qubuts. That would accord with the similar
> rule for other prefixes before a sheva: the sheva becomes hiriq after
> B-, K- and L-; but after W- hiriq would be replaced by qubuts by
> assimilation. Later, when most w's came to be pronounced as v (anyone
> know when this was, by the way?) this vav would not have changed because
> of its context and so would gradually have been simplified to a long u
> sound. These changes may have affected the pronunciation of the
> following sheva, but more probably did not.
>
> --
> Peter Kirk
> peter AT qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/
>
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