Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Polycarp66 AT aol.com]

In a message dated 1/25/2004 4:33:02 PM Eastern Standard Time, 
Bearpecs AT aol.com writes:
GHK (104e):  "Before words with simple Shewa under the first consonant 
(except in the cases under f), the Waw becomes the vowel u"

Weingreen (_A Practical Grammar for Classsical Hebrew_, p.40): "When the 
conjunction is prefixed to a word whose first letter has a shewa, as shemu'el 
[Heb] 'Samuel' then, since the word cannot begin with two shewas (as 
weshemu'el 
[Heb]) the waw [Heb] takes the form shuruq [Heb] -- ushemu'el [Heb] 'and 
Samuel'."

Neither of these grammars state so explicitly, so I need to ask to be sure:  
Does the shewa under the second letter (which had been the first before the 
conjunction was added) always remain vocal?  I.e. is it true to say that a 
shewa 
under the second letter after waw conjunctive is always vocal?
________

That's clearly the implication.  It it were to change, the rule would not 
then be applicable.  Do note, however, the exception noted in the following 
paragraph of Gesenius that it will 

gfsomsel