Biblical Hebrew Forum

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GHK (104e):  "Before words with simple Shewa under the first consonant 
(except in the cases under f), the Waw becomes the vowel u"

Weingreen (_A Practical Grammar for Classsical Hebrew_, p.40): "When the 
conjunction is prefixed to a word whose first letter has a shewa, as shemu'el 
[Heb] 'Samuel' then, since the word cannot begin with two shewas (as 
weshemu'el 
[Heb]) the waw [Heb] takes the form shuruq [Heb] -- ushemu'el [Heb] 'and 
Samuel'."

Neither of these grammars state so explicitly, so I need to ask to be sure:  
Does the shewa under the second letter (which had been the first before the 
conjunction was added) always remain vocal?  I.e. is it true to say that a 
shewa 
under the second letter after waw conjunctive is always vocal?

Thanks
Hayyim