Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 26/01/2004 04:17, Trevor Peterson wrote:

> > ===== Original Message From "Jason Hare" <jason AT hareplay.com> =====
> > I have to agree with George (gfsomsel). I think it is indeed vocal. The
> > shurek is a long vowel, so it would indicate that it is NOT a closed
> > syllable.
> >    
>
> How do you know it's long? Shurek is nothing more than a kubutz when a vav is 
> present. Granted, in a lot of cases vav as a mater marks long-u, but I'll 
> point out again that this is an odd case.
>
> Trevor Peterson
> CUA/Semitics
>
>
>  
I wonder if this initial shuruq was originally consonantal vav (still 
with a w sound) pointed with qubuts. That would accord with the similar 
rule for other prefixes before a sheva: the sheva becomes hiriq after 
B-, K- and L-; but after W- hiriq would be replaced by qubuts by 
assimilation. Later, when most w's came to be pronounced as v (anyone 
know when this was, by the way?) this vav would not have changed because 
of its context and so would gradually have been simplified to a long u 
sound. These changes may have affected the pronunciation of the 
following sheva, but more probably did not.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/