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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Variants of YHWH in the BHS Text

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  • From: Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
  • To: Liz Fried <lizfried AT umich.edu>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Variants of YHWH in the BHS Text
  • Date: Sat, 27 Sep 2003 15:01:01 -0700

On 27/09/2003 14:42, Liz Fried wrote:

Dear Dave et.al.,
I pronounce the name Yahweh when I teach
largely because scholars have for the most
part decided that this is how it was pronounced.
As Peter says, it's based on the Greek where it was
written IAOUE. However, several things have always bothered me about this. 1) it doesn't conform to any of
the theophoric names that we have, 2) it doesn't conform
to what we know from Elephantine, and 3) the Greeks, to
my knowledge, do not have an aspirated H in the middle of
their words, so that sound if there could not have been expressed. herefore, it doesn't make sense to me that Yah-weh is correct.
Liz



Indeed the Greeks didn't have an aspirated H in the middle of words. Nor for that matter do English speakers - do your students pronounce that first H in the form you teach them? The second H should of course be silent anyway, with the pointing I gave. So, if a Greek speaker had heard the this pronunciation, complete with aspiration in the middle, how do you think they would have transliterated it? There is actually plenty of evidence from LXX for how they did transliterate Hebrew names whose Hebrew pronunciation is not in dispute. Just one example, Hebrew )AH:ARON > Greek AARWN illustrates that it was normal for medial he simply to be dropped, with no attempt to represent e.g. by chi.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/






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