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Re: Jeremiah 32:20

From: Dennis Hou <smilax AT asianfools.com>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: Re: Jeremiah 32:20
Date: Thu, 21 Nov 2002 06:42:16 -0600 (CST)

Quoting Trevor Peterson <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>:

> I would think that the perfect tense as used here in a relative clause
> just means they were done in the past. Why would it have any necessary
> implication of continuance?

Does the (d-hywm later in the verse imply continuance?

Thanks in advance,

Dennis Hou

Jeremiah 32:20, Dennis Hou, 11/18/2002
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: Jeremiah 32:20, Yigal Levin, 11/19/2002
- Re: Jeremiah 32:20, Trevor Peterson, 11/19/2002
- Re: Jeremiah 32:20, Peter Kirk, 11/21/2002
- Re: Jeremiah 32:20, Dennis Hou, 11/21/2002
- Re: Jeremiah 32:20, Trevor Peterson, 11/22/2002