Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Trevor Peterson <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>]

Sorry. I don't know what I was thinking now. Maybe it was the drugs :-) I 
probably just looked at the verse too quickly and missed the next phrase.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics

>===== Original Message From Peter Kirk <Peter_R_Kirk AT hotmail.com> =====
>Maybe I have missed something, but Trevor, how do you understand the
>(AD-HAY.OWM HAZ.EH in this verse? BHS suggests a read of W:(AD-...
>following a Greek text, so understanding the miracles to include both
>those of the Exodus and recent ones. Perhaps this lies behind NIV "You
>performed miraculous signs and wonders in Egypt and have continued them
>to this day..."
>
>Peter Kirk
>peter.r.kirk AT ntlworld.com
>http://web.onetel.net.uk/~peterkirk/
>
>
>> -----Original Message-----
>> From: Trevor Peterson [mailto:06PETERSON AT cua.edu]
>> Sent: 20 November 2002 02:26
>> To: Biblical Hebrew
>> Subject: [b-hebrew] Re: Jeremiah 32:20
>>
>> I would think that the perfect tense as used here in a relative clause
>> just
>> means they were done in the past. Why would it have any necessary
>> implication
>> of continuance?
>>
>> Trevor Peterson
>> CUA/Semitics
>>
>> >===== Original Message From Yigal Levin <Yigal-Levin AT utc.edu> =====
>> >I would think that he is referring to the "signs and wonders" of the
>> >Exodus, which have continued in Israel "to this day", as proof of
>God's
>> >ability to save Israel (and Jerimiah, who was in the slammer).
>> >
>> >Yigal
>> >
>> >At 03:24 AM 11/18/2002 -0600, Dennis Hou wrote:
>> >>Does the perfect tense indicate that the signs and wonders were set
>in
>> the
>> >past
>> >>as a continuing memorial, or does the time marker indicate that they
>> >continue
>> >>to be done, (or something else?)
>> >>
>> >>Thanks in advance,
>> >>
>> >>Dennis Hou
>> >>
>> >>---
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>> >>
>> >Dr. Yigal Levin
>> >Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
>> >University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
>> >615 McCallie Avenue
>> >Chattanooga TN 37403-2598
>> >U.S.A.
>> >
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