Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Peter Kirk" <Peter_R_Kirk AT hotmail.com>]

Maybe I have missed something, but Trevor, how do you understand the
(AD-HAY.OWM HAZ.EH in this verse? BHS suggests a read of W:(AD-...
following a Greek text, so understanding the miracles to include both
those of the Exodus and recent ones. Perhaps this lies behind NIV "You
performed miraculous signs and wonders in Egypt and have continued them
to this day..."

Peter Kirk
peter.r.kirk AT ntlworld.com
http://web.onetel.net.uk/~peterkirk/
 

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Trevor Peterson [mailto:06PETERSON AT cua.edu]
> Sent: 20 November 2002 02:26
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: [b-hebrew] Re: Jeremiah 32:20
> 
> I would think that the perfect tense as used here in a relative clause
> just
> means they were done in the past. Why would it have any necessary
> implication
> of continuance?
> 
> Trevor Peterson
> CUA/Semitics
> 
> >===== Original Message From Yigal Levin <Yigal-Levin AT utc.edu> =====
> >I would think that he is referring to the "signs and wonders" of the
> >Exodus, which have continued in Israel "to this day", as proof of
God's
> >ability to save Israel (and Jerimiah, who was in the slammer).
> >
> >Yigal
> >
> >At 03:24 AM 11/18/2002 -0600, Dennis Hou wrote:
> >>Does the perfect tense indicate that the signs and wonders were set
in
> the
> >past
> >>as a continuing memorial, or does the time marker indicate that they
> >continue
> >>to be done, (or something else?)
> >>
> >>Thanks in advance,
> >>
> >>Dennis Hou
> >>
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> >>
> >Dr. Yigal Levin
> >Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
> >University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
> >615 McCallie Avenue
> >Chattanooga TN 37403-2598
> >U.S.A.
> >
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