Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Andy Warren" <andy_warren AT sil.org>]

> The first is an indirect volitive: "speak . . . so that he sends . . . "
This
> is a prime situation for an indirect volitive--imperative directed to one
> person, jussive with a different subject.
>
> The second can't be an indirect volitive, because the form that precedes
is
> not a volitive form (jussive, imperative, cohortative). Like any other
> converted perfect, it continues the force of the preceding non-narrative
form
> (in this case imperfect): "he will speak . . . and he will send . . . "
(The
> imperfect can have an obligative mood, as it probably does here, but it
should
> still be distinguished from a true volitive form. As such, it cannot be
> continued by an indirect volitive.)
>
> That might give you a different translation, but I can see where it might
not.
> I'm not sure that anyone's come up with a good way to translate the
imperfect
> with obligative force. (Any suggestions?)

Funnily enough, I read it exactly the opposite way round!

6:11 Go in - speak to Pharaoh, king of Egypt, and he will have to let the
Israelites leave his country.
(normal yiqtol long-form [not jussive] with modal force of future obligation
[epistemic modality]. 3rd-person jussives can only be used in addressing a
potential agent/causer - you can say to God, "May my enemies be put to
shame!" (because God has the power to effect this), but not to Moses, "May
Pharaoh release the Israelites" (because Moses has no power to make this
happen).

7:2 You must speak everything I command you, and Aaron your brother must
speak to Pharaoh such that he lets the Israelites leave his country.
(weqatal is the normal form for a purpose clause [deontic modality])

As for 'imperfect with obligative force' (what others call the 'preceptive
imperfect') as in the Decalogue and elsewhere, what's wrong with English
'must'?

Andy Warren