Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Trevor Peterson <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>]

I would think that the perfect tense as used here in a relative clause just 
means they were done in the past. Why would it have any necessary implication 
of continuance?

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics

>===== Original Message From Yigal Levin <Yigal-Levin AT utc.edu> =====
>I would think that he is referring to the "signs and wonders" of the
>Exodus, which have continued in Israel "to this day", as proof of God's
>ability to save Israel (and Jerimiah, who was in the slammer).
>
>Yigal
>
>At 03:24 AM 11/18/2002 -0600, Dennis Hou wrote:
>>Does the perfect tense indicate that the signs and wonders were set in the
>past
>>as a continuing memorial, or does the time marker indicate that they
>continue
>>to be done, (or something else?)
>>
>>Thanks in advance,
>>
>>Dennis Hou
>>
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>Dr. Yigal Levin
>Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
>University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
>615 McCallie Avenue
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>
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