Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Trevor Peterson <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>]

>===== Original Message From Lee Roy Martin <lmartin AT vol.com> =====
>Dear Friends,
>Please observe these three translations of Ex 6:11 and 7:2.  They are
>all in agreement that the weyiqtol of 6:11 and the weqatal of 7:2 should
>be translated the same.  They interpret both verbs as indirect speech,
>or purpose statements.  I would expect the weyiqtol to the translated
>this way, but I would expect the weqatal to be simple future tense "and
>he will let Israel go..."
>
>Can anyone help me understand these verbs.

The first is an indirect volitive: "speak . . . so that he sends . . . " This 
is a prime situation for an indirect volitive--imperative directed to one 
person, jussive with a different subject.

The second can't be an indirect volitive, because the form that precedes is 
not a volitive form (jussive, imperative, cohortative). Like any other 
converted perfect, it continues the force of the preceding non-narrative form 
(in this case imperfect): "he will speak . . . and he will send . . . " (The 
imperfect can have an obligative mood, as it probably does here, but it 
should 
still be distinguished from a true volitive form. As such, it cannot be 
continued by an indirect volitive.)

That might give you a different translation, but I can see where it might 
not. 
I'm not sure that anyone's come up with a good way to translate the imperfect 
with obligative force. (Any suggestions?)

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics