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b-hebrew - RE: Exodus 6:11 and 7:2

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  • From: Trevor Peterson <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>
  • To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: RE: Exodus 6:11 and 7:2
  • Date: Wed, 20 Nov 2002 12:31:21 -0500


>===== Original Message From Lee Roy Martin <lmartin AT vol.com> =====
>Dear Friends,
>Please observe these three translations of Ex 6:11 and 7:2. They are
>all in agreement that the weyiqtol of 6:11 and the weqatal of 7:2 should
>be translated the same. They interpret both verbs as indirect speech,
>or purpose statements. I would expect the weyiqtol to the translated
>this way, but I would expect the weqatal to be simple future tense "and
>he will let Israel go..."
>
>Can anyone help me understand these verbs.

The first is an indirect volitive: "speak . . . so that he sends . . . " This
is a prime situation for an indirect volitive--imperative directed to one
person, jussive with a different subject.

The second can't be an indirect volitive, because the form that precedes is
not a volitive form (jussive, imperative, cohortative). Like any other
converted perfect, it continues the force of the preceding non-narrative form
(in this case imperfect): "he will speak . . . and he will send . . . " (The
imperfect can have an obligative mood, as it probably does here, but it
should
still be distinguished from a true volitive form. As such, it cannot be
continued by an indirect volitive.)

That might give you a different translation, but I can see where it might
not.
I'm not sure that anyone's come up with a good way to translate the imperfect
with obligative force. (Any suggestions?)

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics





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