Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Daniel Wagner" <dan.wagner AT netzero.net>]

----- Original Message ----- 
From: <GregStffrd AT aol.com>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Cc: <dstabno AT lifeway.com>
Sent: Friday, May 11, 2001 11:45 AM
Subject: Re: _)aSHER_ in Ex. 3:14 (was "I AM")


> In a message dated 05/11/2001 6:59:23 AM Pacific Daylight Time, 
> dstabno AT lifeway.com writes:
> 
> << If He wanted to say "I will be with you" why did He say _)HYH )$R
>  )HYH_ instead of _)NY )HYH (MK_ or just _)HYH (MK_?  I believe that Dan is
>  right: that He wanted to say something inherently ungrammatical (using a
>  finite verb to fill a proper noun slot). >>
> 
> 
> I agree with you that there are several ways this could have been 
> communicated, but I am not suggesting that God said, "I will be with you," 
> but by defining *Himself* in this way the meaning conveyed was one that 
> would 
> give assurance to His people that as the one who would "prove to be what he 
> purposes to be," 

How does this conclusion, "prove to be what he purposes to be," relate to the 
grammar of the Hebrew text as it stands? It's a true statement, i'll grant, 
and fits with the context, but what relationship does it have with the 
grammar?

Dan Wagner

> He would therefore succeed in His efforts to free his people 
> through Moses, as he outlined in the preceding verses. So, again, YHWH is 
> not 
> saying "I will be with you," but defining Himself which results in this 
> assurance. 
> 
> Best regards,
> 
> Greg Stafford
> 
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