Biblical Hebrew Forum

[GregStffrd AT aol.com]

In a message dated 05/11/2001 6:59:23 AM Pacific Daylight Time, 
dstabno AT lifeway.com writes:

<< If He wanted to say "I will be with you" why did He say _)HYH )$R
 )HYH_ instead of _)NY )HYH (MK_ or just _)HYH (MK_?  I believe that Dan is
 right: that He wanted to say something inherently ungrammatical (using a
 finite verb to fill a proper noun slot). >>


I agree with you that there are several ways this could have been 
communicated, but I am not suggesting that God said, "I will be with you," 
but by defining *Himself* in this way the meaning conveyed was one that would 
give assurance to His people that as the one who would "prove to be what he 
purposes to be," He would therefore succeed in His efforts to free his people 
through Moses, as he outlined in the preceding verses. So, again, YHWH is not 
saying "I will be with you," but defining Himself which results in this 
assurance. 

Best regards,

Greg Stafford