Biblical Hebrew Forum

["David Stabnow" <dstabno AT lifeway.com>]

In a message dated 05/10/2001 2:14:30 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
dan.wagner AT netzero.net writes, in part:

<< << Moses' God can be defined as the very essence of a
covenant-in-action.
What better answer for the Israelites? >> >>

at 9:50 pm Central time Greg Stafford responds, in part:

<< The answer was the very thing the Israelites needed to know: That God
would
prove to be with them in their time of need. Thus, 'EHYEH was used. >>

In an earlier post, Dan Wagner pointed out that seven times in Exodus
through Judges God specifically says, "I will be with (you)."  (See _)HYH
(M..._ in Gen 26:3; 31:3; Exod 3:12; 4:12, 15; Deut 31:23; Josh 1:5; 3:7;
6:16.)  If He wanted to say "I will be with you" why did He say _)HYH )$R
)HYH_ instead of _)NY )HYH (MK_ or just _)HYH (MK_?  I believe that Dan is
right: that He wanted to say something inherently ungrammatical (using a
finite verb to fill a proper noun slot).

I believe there may have been four ways that God could have communicated
this idea.  First, as Greg proposes, He could have said _)NY )HYH_ and
followed it up with the clarification in 3:14b.

Second, He could have used the nifal imperfect of _QR)_, though that might
have had the implication that He was just at that moment being christened
with that Name.

Third, He could have said _$MY )HYH_ "My Name (is) I AM/WILL BE."  The
juxtaposition of a noun that expects a 3ms verb with a 1cs verb would
signal to the reader that something unusual is afoot, and force its
interpretation as a verbless clause.  Again, the follow-up in 14b would
clarify it.

Finally, He could have done what He in fact did, using _)HYH_ as a finite
verb, _)$R_ as a nominalizer, and _)HYH_ as a proper noun.

Dave Stabnow