Biblical Hebrew Forum

[GregStffrd AT aol.com]

In a message dated 05/10/2001 10:31:22 AM Pacific Daylight Time, 
dstabno AT lifeway.com writes:

<< In Deut 31:39 God says, _)NY )MYT ... )NY )RP)_ "I put to death ... I
 heal."  The hearer would not take it as subject-copula-proper name "I am
 )MYT ... I am )RP)."  Why would the hearer do so with _)NY )HYH_?
 
 (See also Isa 46:4; Jer 49:11; Mal 1:4.)
 
 Dave >>


Because in neither instance do we have )MYT or )RP) used as the personal 
subject of a follow-up (contextual) sentence such as 'EHYEH SHELACHANY 
'ALAYCHEM (Exodus 3:14). Additionally, the verbs )MYT and )RP) complete a 
sensible thought in association with the normal sense of the verbs. If we do 
not take 'ANI 'EHYEH as "I am I WILL BE/I AM" (= subject + implied copula + 
proper name/predicate) how else might a native speaker sensibly interpret the 
passage?

Best regards,

Greg Stafford