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b-hebrew - Re: _)aSHER_ in Ex. 3:14 (was "I AM")

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  • From: "Daniel Wagner" <dan.wagner AT netzero.net>
  • To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: _)aSHER_ in Ex. 3:14 (was "I AM")
  • Date: Tue, 8 May 2001 17:03:00 -0400


----- Original Message -----
From: <GregStffrd AT aol.com>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Tuesday, May 08, 2001 12:40 AM
Subject: Re: _)aSHER_ in Ex. 3:14 (was "I AM")


> In a message dated 05/07/2001 6:11:34 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
> dwashbur AT nyx.net writes:
>
> << Excuse me? Dan isn't taking 'ehyeh as a nominal. His whole
> point is that it's a verb, and hence can't be part of a verbless
> clause. >>
>
> He said he views the second 'EHYEH as a name, that is a NOMINAL. It may
> have
> verbal associations, but it is a nominal.

No, the name *is* itself a finite verb. We don't have any parallels, but i
think that the first )EHYEH is used intentionally to show by rhetorical
parallelism that the 2nd )EHYEH is also a verb. God's name is thus summed up
in His covenant self-identification / self-revelation to His people as "I-AM"
(i don't want to transliterate the 2nd verb, i think that is a mistake and
miscommunicates the intent).

But that is not the only reason why )ANI )EHYEH will not work as a noun
clause. The other reason is the grotesque ambiguity in such a statement.

> The same as the example I gave
> concerning YHWH in Exodus 9:27. Are you reading the entire message? YHWH
> has
> verbal associations as a proper name derived from HYH, but it is frequently
> the subject or predicate of a verbless clause.

There is a real difference in my mind between a name having verbal
associations (and i agree that YHWH does) and a finite verb itself being used
as a name itself. Sorry if i didn't make that clear, but i wasn't thinking
down the line as you took it, though i can see how you came to that
conclusion from a couple of my comments about YHWH and HYH / HWH roots. Same
applies to the rest of your comments below.

Dan Wagner

>
>
> << 'ehyeh is more than a word with a "verbal idea attached to
> it," it's an actual verb. >>
>
>
> I think you need to pay better attention to what is being discussed. In the
> first instance Dan is claiming that it means "I am," acting as both the
> subject and copula (or he gets the copula from somewhere else that is not
> clear to me). He then views the second 'EHYEH as a ***NAME***. A name is a
> nominal and, like YHWH, is frequently a part of a verbless clause. YHWH has
> verbal associations, being derived from a verb, just as we could say of
> 'EHYEH ***IF*** we accept it as a name.
>
>
> <<< By definition, this precludes 'ani 'ehyeh from
> being a verbless clause. I get the feeling somebody missed Dan's
> point here. >>>
>
>
> It precludes no such thing when and if you offer 'EHYEH as a proper name;
> but
> your feelings about missing the point are correct.
>
> Best regards,
>
> Greg Stafford





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