Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Daniel Wagner" <dan.wagner AT netzero.net>]

Do you think there could be anything significant about the parallels unless 
the two yiqtol's were identical to each other, and/or it were a context 
presenting a name or something like that? The )asher in these passages are 
signs to show subordination of the verbs which follow, but beyond that, i 
don't know how they would help us.

Dan Wagner

----- Original Message ----- 
From: Lee R. Martin <lmartin AT vol.com>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Cc: Hebrew List <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Tuesday, May 08, 2001 2:19 PM
Subject: Re: Yiqtol + ASHER + Yiqtol


> I meant to say yiqtol+asher+yiqtol.
> LRM
> 
> 
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT cogts.edu>
> To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
> Sent: Tuesday, May 08, 2001 8:35 AM
> Subject: Yiqtol + ASHER + Yiqtol
> 
> 
> > I realize that we have investigated every imaginable angle of Exo 3:14,
> but
> > I still have another question.  How many times in the HB does ASHER+
> yiqtol
> > function as a object noun clause as it does in Exo 3:14?  My search found
> > only two other examples, both in Exodus: Ex 6:1 and 11:7.  Does anyone
> know
> > of others?
> > Lee R. Martin
> >
> >
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