Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Raymond de Hoop <rdehoop AT tref.nl>]

Christian M. M. Brady <cbrady AT tulane.edu> wrote on 30-01-2001 07:12:

> On 1/29/01 9:58 AM, "Raymond de Hoop" <rdehoop AT tref.nl> wrote:
> 
>> No doubt the question why Matthew read Isaiah 7:14 in the way he did, is
>> interesting. However, in that case we are dealing with the "historyof
>> interpretation", some 700 years after Isaiah spoke these words, and
>> notwith philology. It seems more appropriate to follow Jonathan's
>> suggestion to read the text first in context (litteral and historical):
>> Isaiah promised a sign to Ahaz, so if Isaiah would have referred
>> exclusively to a messiah 700 years later, it was a pity for Ahaz but he
>> never would have seen thepromise being fulfilled. It stands to reason
>> that Isaiah's words were meantto have a message for the people of his
>> own time....
> 
> Ahh, but that would be too reasonable! ;-)
> 
> Cb
> cbrady @ tulane.edu
> 

Yes Christian it might be reasonable. But that's the starting point for
philology: the semantic field of the word, its litterary and historical
context, not it's interpretation after 700 years.