Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Christian M. M. Brady" <cbrady AT tulane.edu>]

On 1/30/01 1:50 AM, "Jonathan D. safren" <yonsaf AT beitberl.ac.il> wrote:

> Christian M. M. Brady wrote:
> 
>> On 1/29/01 9:00 AM, "Jonathan D. Safren" <yon_saf AT bezeqint.net> wrote:
>> 
>>> There was no "pluralis majestatis" at that time (God in Gen. 1:28 is
> talking
>>> to the Divine retinue).
>> 
>> What evidence do you have that there was no 'pluralis majestatis' in
> ancient
>> Israel?
>> 
> 
> What evidence do you have that there was?

Hi Jonathan,

Don't get me wrong! I wasn't arguing with you. I just wanted to hear a solid
argument on this since I have heard so many times from so many scholars that
the pluralis majestatis should be considered as an option.

Thanks for responding!

Cb
> Neither Israelite nor other kings in the Bible (Pharaoh in Ex. 1:8-9 is
> speaking to his people and asking their cooperation) norAncient Near Eastern
> Kings in their annals and inscriptions ever use the "pluralis majestatis".
> They speak in first person singular.
> The Israelite God, the Divine King, has a retinue, including messengers
> (which is what the Hebrew mal'akh and the Greek aggelos mean), even a
> spouse, according to the Kuntillet Ajrud Inscription, and so, when He uses
> "we", He is referring to these.
> See, for example:
> Gen. 3: 22 "see, Man has become like one of us..."
> God's retinue may have orignially included other gods; see
> Ps. 29:1 "A Psalm for the David(ic king): Ascribe to YHWH, oh sons of the
> gods, ascribe to YHWH glory and strength".
> Ps. 95:3 "For YHWH is a great god, and a great king over all the gods".
> Other verses could be adduced as well.