Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Christian M. M. Brady" <cbrady AT tulane.edu>]

On 1/29/01 9:58 AM, "Raymond de Hoop" <rdehoop AT tref.nl> wrote:

> No doubt the question why Matthew read Isaiah 7:14 in the way he did, is
> interesting. However, in that case we are dealing with the "historyof
> interpretation", some 700 years after Isaiah spoke these words, and
> notwith philology. It seems more appropriate to follow Jonathan's
> suggestion to read the text first in context (litteral and historical):
> Isaiah promised a sign to Ahaz, so if Isaiah would have referred
> exclusively to a messiah 700 years later, it was a pity for Ahaz but he
> never would have seen thepromise being fulfilled. It stands to reason
> that Isaiah's words were meantto have a message for the people of his
> own time....

Ahh, but that would be too reasonable! ;-)

Cb
cbrady @ tulane.edu