Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Ausra Pazeraite <akp AT centras.lt>]

I doubt if Matthew o Luke read Isaiah in Hebrew. That's a question for 
b-greekers, not for b-hebrew folk...



Ausra



>No doubt the question why Matthew read Isaiah 7:14 in the way he did, is 

>interesting. However, in that case we are dealing with the "historyof 

>interpretation", some 700 years after Isaiah spoke these words, and 

>notwith philology. It seems more appropriate to follow Jonathan's 

>suggestion to read the text first in context (litteral and historical): 

>Isaiah promised a sign to Ahaz, so if Isaiah would have referred 

>exclusively to a messiah 700 years later, it was a pity for Ahaz but he 

>never would have seen thepromise being fulfilled. It stands to reason 

>that Isaiah's words were meantto have a message for the people of his 

>own time....

>

>Raymond

>

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>Dr Raymond de Hoop        Telephone: ++31-(0)50 553 0115

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