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  • From: Ausra Pazeraite <akp AT centras.lt>
  • To: Raymond de Hoop <rdehoop AT tref.nl>, Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew
  • Date: Tue, 30 Jan 2001 07:14:07 +0100



I doubt if Matthew o Luke read Isaiah in Hebrew. That's a question for
b-greekers, not for b-hebrew folk...



Ausra



>No doubt the question why Matthew read Isaiah 7:14 in the way he did, is

>interesting. However, in that case we are dealing with the "historyof

>interpretation", some 700 years after Isaiah spoke these words, and

>notwith philology. It seems more appropriate to follow Jonathan's

>suggestion to read the text first in context (litteral and historical):

>Isaiah promised a sign to Ahaz, so if Isaiah would have referred

>exclusively to a messiah 700 years later, it was a pity for Ahaz but he

>never would have seen thepromise being fulfilled. It stands to reason

>that Isaiah's words were meantto have a message for the people of his

>own time....

>

>Raymond

>

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