Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Christian M. M. Brady" <cbrady AT tulane.edu>]

On 1/30/01 6:59 AM, "Raymond de Hoop" <rdehoop AT tref.nl> wrote:

> Christian M. M. Brady <cbrady AT tulane.edu> wrote on 30-01-2001 07:12:
> 
>> On 1/29/01 9:58 AM, "Raymond de Hoop" <rdehoop AT tref.nl> wrote:
>> 
>>> No doubt the question why Matthew read Isaiah 7:14 in the way he did, is
>>> interesting. However, in that case we are dealing with the "historyof
>>> interpretation", some 700 years after Isaiah spoke these words, and
>>> notwith philology. It seems more appropriate to follow Jonathan's
>>> suggestion to read the text first in context (litteral and historical):
>>> Isaiah promised a sign to Ahaz, so if Isaiah would have referred
>>> exclusively to a messiah 700 years later, it was a pity for Ahaz but he
>>> never would have seen thepromise being fulfilled. It stands to reason
>>> that Isaiah's words were meantto have a message for the people of his
>>> own time....
>> 
>> Ahh, but that would be too reasonable! ;-)
>> 
>> Cb
>> cbrady @ tulane.edu
>> 
> 
> Yes Christian it might be reasonable. But that's the starting point for
> philology: the semantic field of the word, its litterary and historical
> context, not it's interpretation after 700 years.

So much for my attempt at humor!

Of course I agree with you. We must begin with the text and its meaning
within its original context.

Cb
cbrady @ tulane.edu
-- 
"I never let schooling interfere with my education."
                  -Mark Twain