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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: "Liz Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>
- To: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
- Subject: Constructs with finite verb.
- Date: Tue, 5 Sep 2000 10:56:18 -0400
Last night I found a relevant section in Gesenius
on this topic. There it said that in these cases the
whole rest of the sentence (or maybe he meant the clause
which began with the finite verb) was in a dependent
genitive relationship to the noun in construct.
There was no elaboration and I'm not sure how to undersand
what is being said. What does that mean exactly?
Does that mean we translate it as if it were a verbal noun?
Is that what Rashi meant? Rather than emend it
you read these as if they were verbal nouns?
Liz
-
Constructs with finite verb.,
Liz Fried, 09/05/2000
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: Constructs with finite verb., Dave Washburn, 09/05/2000
- RE: Constructs with finite verb., Liz Fried, 09/05/2000
- RE: Constructs with finite verb., Dave Washburn, 09/05/2000
- Re: Constructs with finite verb., Bryan Rocine, 09/05/2000
- Re: Constructs with finite verb., Peter Kirk, 09/07/2000
- Re: Constructs with finite verb., Dave Washburn, 09/08/2000
- Re: Constructs with finite verb., Peter Kirk, 09/09/2000
- Re: Constructs with finite verb., Dave Washburn, 09/09/2000
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