Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>]

Lee Martin wrote:
> Dave,
> Yes, I understand what Rolf is saying. I agree with him and with you that
> there is no "separate" weqatal.  I never said there was.  But weqatals are
> *not* used like qatals without "we-".  How do you explain that? That
wasn't
> my point. The 2 components of the finite verb system are 1) prefix
> conjugation, 2) and suffix conjugation.

Dave wrote:

Um, now I'm confused.  If there is no such thing, how can it be
used differently?  Obviously I'm missing something here.  As for the
2 components, am I correct in assuming that the WP is subsumed
under the prefix conjugation?

Dave,
Yes, WP is prefix conjugation, but wayyiqtol functions differently from
yiqtol or the jussive, or the cohortative.  There is no *weqatal* form, so
to speak, but I am using weqatal to refer to qatal when it has the
conjunction we-.  These do exist, without question, thousands of them.  To
use different terms, the suffix conjugation has different functions with and
without the conjunction, and I am asking for someone to explain why.