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  • From: "David Inglis" <david AT colonialcommerce.com>
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: Did Paul know Peter's travel locations?
  • Date: Tue, 25 Jun 2002 12:27:09 -0400


Runar M. Thorsteinsson wrote:
> David,
>
> you wrote:
[snip]
>> I had previously read 15:20 as indicating that Paul didn't want to
tread
>> on someone else's toes. However, 15:20-21 together can be read to
suggest
>> that he would have been doing exactly that if he had gone to Rome any
>> earlier, because someone else was there before him. 15:23 suggests
that
>> his work in other areas is done, and it is now OK for him to simply
visit
>> on his way to Spain.
>
> Perhaps you might consider that Paul was not actually speaking of Rome in
> 15:20-21. As a part of Paul's account of his apostolic authority and mission
> (vv. 15-21), vv. 20-21 do not refer to Rome but to his previous missionary
> work "from Jerusalem and as far around as Illyricum" (NRSV). Simultaneously,
> these words offer an explanation why Paul had not been able to come to Rome
> in spite of his stated desire to do so (vv. 22-29; cf. 1:10-13). In other
> words, Paul explains to his audience in Rome that he has been occupied with
> proclaiming the "good news" in the east, yet only where Christ had not been
> named so as to not building on "someone else's foundation" in these regions.

Runar,

I apologize if I did not make myself clear, because if I understand you
correctly this is exactly what I meant. Paul's explanation in 15:20-21
does not specifically refer to Rome. However, the readership is intended
to see in these words the reason why Paul has not yet been to Rome, i.e.
because someone else (i.e. Peter) had already been there.

> If we take it that the Isaiah reference in v. 21 functioned as a "canon" for
> Paul's missionary work in general, and that "someone else was [in Rome]
> before him" it is difficult to see how Paul could not have stepped on
> "someone else's toes" by writing his letter, in which he seems indeed to be
> proclaiming God's "good news" to the Roman audience (see 1:15).

Yes, this is a problem. Why would Paul not consider that sending the
letter was building on "someone else's foundation"? It would seem to make
sense only if the letter was addressed to people with whom Peter had not
yet had any contact, but in that case why include the explanation?

Another problem is that if Peter had been in Corinth, how could Paul go to
Corinth as well? Perhaps this indicates that Paul was first in Corinth
before Peter, which would mean that it was Peter (and also Apollos, Acts
18:27, 19:1) who was building on Paul's foundation, not the other way
round.

Perhaps someone else on this list can help with these issues.

Dave Inglis
david AT colonialcommerce.com
3538 O'Connor Drive
Lafayette, CA, USA




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