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  • From: tmcos AT canada.com
  • To: corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [Corpus-Paul] RE: son of man
  • Date: Sun, 14 Dec 2003 07:05:16 -0800 (PST)

Tony Buglass wrote: "Re Jeff's point about GMark's
audience: perhaps we should refine our picture of the
target audience into primary audience and included
audience. If Mark
was written in Rome, we would expect substantially the
same audience as Paul - ie primarily Hellenist and
increasingly Gentile. However, if it was written in
Palestine, we would expect a primarily Palestinian
Jewish audience with a number of Gentile or Hellenist
converts. For Paul, I suggest the proportions would be
the opposite - mainly Hellenist and Gentile, with a
proportionately diminishing core of Jews. More
significantly, wherever Mark was written, it was more
important for his function in writing a Gospel to
retain the sayings-tradition. For Paul's purposes,
that was less important. Especially of his churches
already had access to it through other documents."

Cheers,
Tony


If I could also add to what Tony Buglass wrote re: son
of man and GMark. It is understandable for Paul to use
KURIOS language in place of the Aramaic son of man and
the parallels provided in 1 Thess and the Synoptic
sayings were very good examples of this.
With the GMark, it is held based on Papias' testimony
that it was written in Rome and to the Romans which
would have a considerable Gentile audience and this
explains Mark's tendency to explain Jewish terms
(washing of hands Mark 7; day of preparation Mark 15,
etc). However, his use of the "son of man" sayings of
Jesus in his gospel may be due to the fact that Papias
also testifies that Mark recieved his gospel account
from Peter who would be a primary Aramaic source. If
Papias can be trusted on this point, then it would
follow that Mark wrote down his account according to
Peter which would explain the son of man sayings in his
gospel.

Tony Costa





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