Corpus-Paul

[AF3506 AT aol.com]

James Ernest wrote: <<di' au)tou= can't mean "for him". And anyway, I'd guess that thevariant autou is not au)tou= but au(tou=, merely an alternative spellingof the reflexive pronoun, because "nothing is common through him"doesn't make sense here.>>

I want to clarify one small point. I didn't come up with the translation "thru him" by myself. Some translations have "him" instead of "it." For example, Wycliffe's has: "that no thing is vnclene bi hym" the Lamsa translation has: "For I know and have confidence in the Lord Jesus, that nothing unclean comes from him;". So I thought that perhaps the "him" either referred to Christ or to the brother of verse 13. I'm not writing this to debate, but just to point out that I didn't originate that particular rendering.

Albert