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  • From: Ntsearcher AT aol.com
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Paul and fornication/divorce
  • Date: Thu, 18 Oct 2001 07:15:58 EDT


The perplexities of divorce/remarriage in Scripture have led me to seek new
light from the Bible. There are two chief questions that I'm not clear on.
Perhaps some of you who've studied this can help:

1. What does the word 'fornication' actually mean in Paul? Jesus taught that
a divorce is permitted if there is pornea, fornication. The question: is that
sexual intercourse or can it refer to something less than (petting, etc.)?
Paul distinguishes fornication from adultery in 1 Corinthians. What is the
difference exactly? And how was that word used in that day?

2. In 1 Corinthians 7: 27-28: Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be
loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if thou marry,
thou hast
not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such
shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.

Do the two verses connect? That is, is Paul saying that the person who is
'loosed' can in fact marry and 'not be sinning.' If so, how does this square
with the Lord's word that if a person is divorced and marries another, it is
adultery.

Thanks,
Frank Anthony
Tampa, FL




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