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corpus-paul - Re: Paul and fornication/divorce

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  • From: "George Athas" <gathas AT ausisp.com>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Paul and fornication/divorce
  • Date: Tue, 23 Oct 2001 23:58:17 +1000


The word PORNEIA is a general term for sexual promiscuity. It can be used in
this general
sense as an umbrella term for all sexually promiscuous dealings, or it can be
used more
specifically as a reference to a particular sexual misdemeanour.

In Matt 19, Jesus says that what God joins together man must not separate.
Taking this
statement, the idea or PORNEIA which allows for a separation (divorce) could
only be a
situation in which God did not join together. In Torah, this would cover the
principles
prohibiting incest. What is poignant is that Jesus makes this statement in
Perea -- a
territory of Herod Antipas who had beheaded John the Baptist just down the
road for
condemning his marriage to Herodias who was Antipas' cousin and niece. In
short, an
annulment seems to be the only legitimate grounds for divorce in the Gospels.

As per your second question, I don't think Paul is illicitly saying that a
divorcee is
free to remarry. Earlier in the chapter he prohibits divorce as far as a
believer is
concerned. I don't think in 1 Cor 7:27 that Paul is then illicitly allowing
divorce. If
this is the case with divorce, I imagine the same holds true for remarriage
given the
parallel statement in 7:27.


Best regards,

GEORGE ATHAS
(Sydney, Australia)






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