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  • From: RSBrenchley AT aol.com
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: The purpose of the law in salvation-history
  • Date: Sat, 1 Sep 2001 04:14:11 EDT


Loren writes:

> It was certainly later pressed into the service of
> misguided Lutheran/Calvinist agendas. But the
> statements of Gal. 3:19-24 and Rom. 11:32 need to
> dealt with in any case, and not simply wished away.
> What sense do you, Robert, make of Paul's assertion
> that "God has imprisoned us under disobedience so that
> he may be merciful to all?"

It's certainly blaming God for sin, isn't it? In the Galatians passage
God seems to have given Torah more as an act of mercy, because of sin. But in
Romans Paul's struggling with the Jews' overall rejection of the Jesus
movement, and attributes the problem directly to God. Are there any Jewish
antecedents for this? What's the precise meaning of SUNEKLEISEN here? It's
difficult to see how scripture can 'imprison' or 'shut up' anyone under sin,
as in Galatians 3:22, if the word has its apparent meaning.

Regards,

Robert Brenchley,
Birmingham, UK.

RSBrenchley AT aol.com




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