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corpus-paul - Re: Rom 3,21-26

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  • From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Rom 3,21-26
  • Date: Sun, 23 Jul 2000 20:35:13 -0500


Dear Christian,
You write:

>I'm working with Rom 3,21-26 - a very interesting passage. Right now I
>wonder what Paul means with the phase dia. tês apolutrwsew in verse 24.

>The newest commentary I have read (Schreiner, Romans Baker Book 1998 p.
>189) links it to the Exodus pattern, maintaining that the liberation
>Israel longed for has been realized "in Christ Jesus." Is Schreiner right
>in making that link, and why/why not is it correct?

The word is relatively rare. In the Septuagint it appears only in Dan 4:34
according to my Bible search program.

BAGD says that the word refers to the buying back of a slave or captive,
making him free by the payment of a ransom. They add that the usage often
diverges from its original meaning, and that figuratively it refers to the
release from sin and finiteness that comes through Christ.

Many think that events in the OT are historical types, or pictures of
eternal realities of salvation. In this analogical thinking Israel
represents mankind, and what God did with that people mirrors some of the
things that He wants to do in saving us. The biblical writers sometimes use
the experiences of Israel in this way (e.g., John 3:14; 1 Cor 10:1-13).

So making a connection between Rom 3:24 and the redemption from slavery in
Egypt may not be farfetched.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard








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