Corpus-Paul

["Mark D. Nanos" <nanos AT gvi.net>]

Moon finished a useful comment with this point:
>In sum, even if "the works of the law" is interpreted to refer to the
>hallakic interpretations of the law, as Roy claims, it seems to function
>in Paul as the identity marks of being Jew, the membership conditions of
>the covenant people. To this Paul opposed. At least, so  far, this makes
>sense to me.

Mark Nanos responds:
This first sentence is helpful. The phrase does seem to me to be about
identity yet with clear reference to things Jewish, and the very word ERGWN
suggesting "actions" or "works" of a Jewish person. They are linked when a
gentile person wants to become Jewish in this phrase works of law, that is,
they want to become part of a group of people so identified. And they are
linked for a Jewish person maintaining that this is necessary to be of the
same standing before God and within the group.

But I think the next statement Moon makes might muddy the point in another
direction, as it stands anyway: "To this Paul [was] opposed." I am not sure
what this means. To what?: Jewish people in-Christ being identified as
Jewish or behaving Jewishly? or to this identity being the grounds of
status discrimination among Christ-believing Jews and non-Jews? I take it
to be the latter only; but the traditional view is the former, which seems
to me to lead to discrimination as well, in reverse, against Jewish
identity and practice in favor of gentile identity and practice. Paul seems
to argue for the equality of both in these groups.

I do not think Paul opposed Jewish identity or observance, but only when
these were put into competition with Christ-identity for a gentile
co-participant in the group. This group has its group identity in its
shared conviction about Christ, regardless of the fact that it consists of
both Jews and non-Jews, that is, other identities are subordinated within
this group in terms of status (3:28). Apparantly at this time Jewish status
was regarded higher within this group (this suggests to me a reform
movement rather than sectarian by the way), and thus was the cause for
social anxiety among the gentile members. It is the discrimination, not the
difference that is in view. Why does Paul oppose this discrimination based
upon one's possession of Jewish identity or not? Because he believes that
the new age has dawned in which the God of creation is reaching out through
Israel to the nations, to restore all of the created order. If gentiles who
believe this become Israelites, then only Israel is being restored. To
limit God's reach only to Israelites is to limit God's oneness (Rom.
3:29-31; Gal. 3:20). And to make meaningless the death of Christ as
effecting this action of God (2:21).

At least that is what I take Paul's argument to be. He gives the other side
of this to make his case to Peter: Did believing in Christ bring us Jews
down to the level of gentiles/sinners? (2:17)" No. It brought them up to
the same status" as us Jewish people is the implied answer that Peter has
agreed on in the past: all are equally identified with Christ, even if
still different as Jews and gentiles (2:18-20). But Peter now violated this
principle (the truth of the gospel), by his withdrawal which implies that
they are not equal unless they become proselytes, i.e., become identified
as Jewish people (Israelites), or otherwise put: recognizable by ERGWN
NOMOU instead of merely the confession of faith in Christ (2:16; or AKOAS
PISTEWS; 3:2, 5).

Regards,
Mark Nanos
Kansas City and
Postgraduate student at Univ. of St. Andrews