Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Jerry Shepherd <jshepherd53 AT gmail.com>]

 Karl, Karl, try to follow the flow of the discussion.  It was you who first mentioned corruption in regard to Mishnaic Hebrew in the midst of a discussion we were having about the Masoretic text.  I said it was not a corruption.  That led eventually to my saying that I did not consider what the Masoretes did to be a corruption, and for some reason you referred to that as a red herring, apparently not knowing what a red herring is.

 

Blessings,

 

Jerry

Jerry Shepherd

Taylor Seminary

Edmonton, Alberta

jshepherd53 AT gmail.com

 

On Tue, Jul 16, 2013 at 1:08 AM, K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com> wrote:

Jerry:

On Mon, Jul 15, 2013 at 10:54 PM, Jerry Shepherd <jshepherd53 AT gmail.com> wrote:

Karl,

 

This was your statement that led to the prompting of the question:

 

"There is more likelihood that the pronunciation changed when a “corrupted version” (Mishnaic Hebrew), was spoken."

This is all the more the reason why I’m asking your for your definitions. In this sentence, Mishnaic Hebrew is already the corrupted language. That you didn’t recognize this makes me question how much you understand.

 

Blessings,

 

Jerry

Jerry Shepherd

Taylor Seminary

Edmonton, Alberta

jshepherd53 AT gmail.com

 

Karl W. Randolph.