Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Jerry:

On Mon, Jul 15, 2013 at 9:43 PM, Jerry Shepherd <jshepherd53 AT gmail.com> wrote:

Karl: "OK, you define what you understand when you hear the phrase "one unique meaning".  I want to know, did I use terminology that confuses rather than elucidates? Why is it that my definition of the terms, which I repeated several times, seem not to resonate in you?"

 

Jerry: I understand it to mean what you said it to mean:

 

Karl (5/4/2013): "When one looks at the actions referred to by a lexeme, other than homonyms where two or more words from different roots have converged in form, words generally have one meaning at any one point in time."

That’s a begging the question logical fallacy. I asked you what you think such terminology means, not what you think I mean by it.

To me it appears that you have a different meaning for that terminology that what I have, as a result, I want to find out what you think the terminology means to clear up communication.

You haven’t answered my question yet.

 

Jerry: My reaction to that is the same one that Ruth had:

 

Ruth (5/4/2013): "I've seen it claimed here repeatedly that a single lexeme necessarily has a

single meaning in all the contexts it is used in.  I think that is nonsense."

 

Jerry: Karl, if you think you've been misunderstood, then I think the burden is on you to do a better job of explaining yourself.

And I think you need to answer questions directly if there’s any hint of misunderstanding. 

 

Blessings,

 

Jerry

Jerry Shepherd

Taylor Seminary

Edmonton, Alberta

jshepherd53 AT gmail.com

 

Karl W. Randolph.