Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Petr Tomasek <tomasek AT etf.cuni.cz>]

On Tue, Jul 09, 2013 at 11:22:06AM +0100, Chris Watts wrote:
> Hallo Pere, well firstly I recognised that the heh holem vav is  
> indicative of an imperative and the heh a hiphil, then the tsere  
> under the tsadi instead of a hireq.  I was surprised so I checked B.  
> Davidsons's hebrew analytical lexicon and there is written this word  
> idicating it as an imperative hiphil?  Also I checked my personal  
> grammar under the assumption that this verb would qualify as a Pe Vav/ 
> Pe Yod.
> 
> Chris Watts
> Ireland

But how would you explain the presence of the -תי ending?

Petr Tomasek

BTW. What do you mean by "indicative of an imperative"?
To me this sounds like an oxymoron.