Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Chris Watts <dekruidnootjes AT eircom.net>]

Hallo Pere, well firstly I recognised that the heh holem vav is  
indicative of an imperative and the heh a hiphil, then the tsere  
under the tsadi instead of a hireq.  I was surprised so I checked B.  
Davidsons's hebrew analytical lexicon and there is written this word  
idicating it as an imperative hiphil?  Also I checked my personal  
grammar under the assumption that this verb would qualify as a Pe Vav/ 
Pe Yod.

Chris Watts
Ireland



On 9 Jul 2013, at 09:26, Pere Porta wrote:

I assume that you refer to "w'hotsety".
What is the reason that induces you to think that "hotsety" is in the
Imperative?

Greetings

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)

2013/7/9 Chris Watts <dekruidnootjes AT eircom.net>

> I am stumped to be honest as to why the verb translated as "bring" in
> this verse is in the imperative.  Just like many others in exodus.
> It could just as easily have been a standard hiphil perfect?  and
> received the same translation, or not? After a few days I can not see
> why it should be in the imperative.
>
> Chris Watts
> Ireland
>
>
>
> _______________________________________________
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew



--
Pere Porta