Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Rolf" <rolf.furuli AT sf-nett.no>]

Dear Yigael,

I know what the normal practice is today among the Jews. I experienced it 
myself for the first time forty years ago in Jerusalem, and then I was very 
surprised. I do not think we have any evidence today regarding the Galilean 
Jewish practice in the first part of the first century CE. However, we should 
note that Jesus generally did not follow what the religious leaders of the 
day taught and did. He often said: "You have heard that it has been said (by 
the religious leaders)....But I say to you..."  Therefore, we cannot conclude 
that Jesus and the NT writers followed the traditions of the Pharisees and 
Sadducees.



Best regards,



Rolf Furuli
Stavern
Norway



 
Torsdag 13. Juni 2013 19:34 CEST skrev Yigal Levin <Yigal.Levin AT biu.ac.il>: 
 
> Rolf, I've been staying away from this one because I really think that it's
> a non-issue, but I'll make this comment: the real question is, at what stage
> and in what circles did Jews stop pronouncing YHWH and begin saying Adonai
> instead. Inferring from modern practice, Jews today (and for most of the
> past 2000 years or so) see YHWH and read Adonai just as naturally as
> speakers of English see lb and read "pound". It's ingrained in common usage.
> In fact so much so, that for most of the past 2000 years or so, since Adonai
> is considered the "regular" pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton, Adonai
> itself is considered to be a sacred name, and in common speech (that is,
> outside of the synagogue liturgy) it is replaced by "Hashem" - "The Name".
> To many Jews today (those who are not academic Bible scholars), this is
> "normal".
> 
> Now I don't know whether the circles in which Jesus grew up in the first
> century had already adopted this behavior. If they had, Jesus would have
> "normally" read Adonai. Do you know what "normal" Galilean Jewish practice
> was at the time?
> 
> Yigal Levin
> 
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Rolf
> Sent: Thursday, June 13, 2013 11:05 AM
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] G. Geroux and the Name
> 
> Dear Jerry,
> 
> As for me, I think we are approaching the end of this thread. But allow me a
> few comments.
> 
> You are free to find something likely or unlikely; I will not try to
> interfere with that. This thread started when I, in a post discussing the
> Tanakh. mentioned that there even is  good evidence in favor of the name of
> God being found in the NT autographs. When I sum up the discussion, I see
> that several things have been turned upside down; what is normal has been
> portrayed as abnormal, and what is strange has been portrayed what we should
> expect. Several important points that I have raised have not been
> addre4ssed.
> 
> The following points have not been addressed: 
> 
> When Jesus opened the book of Isaiah and read from chapter 61, the normal
> thing to do was to read the Hebrew text, including  YHWH, as it was written.
> Why would he do something abnormal, not pronouncing YHWH, when this would
> have been against everything that is said about God and his name in the
> Tanakh?  Luke reported the incident. If Jesus pronounced the name, why would
> Luke do what would have been abnormal and delete the proper name and
> substitute it with an appellative when the text Jesus quoted had YHWH?
> 
> When someone translates a text, the normal procedure in connection with
> proper names is to transcribe them in accordance of the stock of phonemes of
> the target language? According to Archer/Chirichigno, Romans 15:11 quotes
> Psalm 117:1 where YHWH is found? Why would Paul in this verse not follow the
> normal quoting procedure and use the proper name of God?
> 
> I have argued in favor of the normal translation and quoting procedures.
> Those who argue in favor of KURIOS in the NT argue in favor of abnormal
> procedures.
> 
> A last question: Do you believe that the original manuscript of Romans 15:11
> contained KS, or was KS first introduced in manuscripts of Romans in the
> second century CE?
> 
> 
> 
> Best regards,
> 
> 
> 
> Rolf Furuli
> Stavern
> Norway
> 
>  
>