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  • From: Barry <nebarry AT verizon.net>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Takliyth
  • Date: Mon, 05 Nov 2012 06:30:41 -0500

On 11/5/2012 4:22 AM, George Athas wrote:
Could this not simply be the phenomenon of shifting semantic domains? In
Hebrew, this word means 'perfect' in the sense of 'complete'. While
'perfect' is a legitimate way to translate the word in Latin, the actual
Latin word has a slightly different semantic range, on which Augustine
is basing his discussion. In other words, Augustine is situating his
discussion within the Latin meanings of the Latin word, not the Hebrew
meanings of the Hebrew word.

Certainly possible, George, although my earlier response demonstrated how Mike's definition of the English "perfect" is not necessary to Augustine's discussion. If Augustine is approaching that sense, it is due to the semantic shift of the word itself, a shift we see that eventually works its way when the word becomes an English borrowing from medieval Latin, but does not seem to be part of Classical Latin or the writers of later antiquity who do their best to imitate that style of Latin. Neither the Lewis & Short or the OLD list "perfect with regard to moral qualities" or the like as a meaning for the word.

--
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Semper melius Latine sonat
The American Academy
http://www.theamericanacademy.net
The North American Reformed Seminary
http://www.tnars.net
Bible Translation Magazine
http://www.bible-translation.net

http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog




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