Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Barry <nebarry AT verizon.net>]

On 11/5/2012 4:22 AM, George Athas wrote:
> Could this not simply be the phenomenon of shifting semantic domains? In
> Hebrew, this word means 'perfect' in the sense of 'complete'. While
> 'perfect' is a legitimate way to translate the word in Latin, the actual
> Latin word has a slightly different semantic range, on which Augustine
> is basing his discussion. In other words, Augustine is situating his
> discussion within the Latin meanings of the Latin word, not the Hebrew
> meanings of the Hebrew word.

Certainly possible, George, although my earlier response demonstrated 
how Mike's definition of the English "perfect" is not necessary to 
Augustine's discussion. If Augustine is approaching that sense, it is 
due to the semantic shift of the word itself, a shift we see that 
eventually works its way when the word becomes an English borrowing from 
medieval Latin, but does not seem to be part of Classical Latin or the 
writers of later antiquity who do their best to imitate that style of 
Latin.  Neither the Lewis & Short or the OLD list "perfect with regard 
to moral qualities" or the like as a meaning for the word.

--
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Semper melius Latine sonat
The American Academy
http://www.theamericanacademy.net
The North American Reformed Seminary
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Bible Translation Magazine
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http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog