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  • From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
  • To: Mike Burke <michaelgburk AT yahoo.com>
  • Cc: "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Takliyth
  • Date: Mon, 19 Nov 2012 09:02:34 -0800

Mike:

This word is used only five times in the Hebrew Bible, which in this case makes a full understanding of the word somewhat uncertain.

It comes from the root כלה KLH meaning “to finish off, so as not to have to deal with it any more, also used in the sense of being finished off (as in dying or completing a task)” so seems to have the meaning “completion Job 11:7, 26:10, 28:3, Nehemiah 3:21 complete Psalm 139:22”.

How best to translate this idea is another question, with different translators giving different words to render the idea, some doing a better job than others.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Fri, Nov 2, 2012 at 9:40 PM, Mike Burke <michaelgburk AT yahoo.com> wrote:
Hi all.

My name is Mike Burke, and I'm interested in Biblical Hebrew.

What I'm interested in at the moment is the range of meaning of the word "Takliyth" (used in Psalm 139:22.)

In commenting on the verse, Augustine seems to have followed the Latin Vulgate, and says a "perfect" hatred would be to hate the vices of the men--neither excusing the vices because of the men, or hating the men because of the vices.

It makes for a very interesting interpretation, but is "perfection" part of the meaning of the Hebrew word used in the text?

The NIV has "I have nothing but hatred for them."

Was Augustine entirely off the mark here?

Did the Latin Vulgate get it wrong?

Please reply.




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