Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

 To our friend Isaac Fried.

You often claim that after a patah one finds dagesh "*as expected*" (in your
words).
I see that many words having patah are, indeed, followed by dagesh.
And so,

-L$LXNW, to send us away (Ex 13:15)
-&MXNW, (you, male) gladden us! (Ps 90:15)
and many other.

But I remark too that often there is no dagesh after patah (and I know that
gutturals aren't dageshed)
And so

-MLKNW, our king (Hos 7:5)
-SL)Y, my rock (2S 22:2)
-MQLY, my rod (Zc 11:10)
and many other.

Could you clarify your position hereon?

1. When, under which conditions a dagesh comes in the letter that is after a
patah?
2. Are there some exceptions to the "rule" you may state?
3. If there are some exceptions: which these are?

Kind regards from

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)




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-- 
Pere Porta