Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Randall Buth <randallbuth AT gmail.com>]

> In Ps 51.10 ---------> must we understand the pronoun "asher" as having
> been (deliberately or not) forgotten/omitted before the last word "dikita"?
>
> Or maybe not?  Namely, is there a good reason for the lacking of "asher"?

There are a couple of 'reasons' for not using asher in the phrase
tagelna `atsamot dikita  "may 'bones you crushed' rejoice"

1. there is a tendency for indefinite and less-definite nouns not to use
an 'asher' in their linking, the more so in poetry.
2. Probably more importantly here, the metre is tight without 'asher'.
51:9-10 form a little subsection of the poem and each line is a 3-3 word
stress. In other words "it sounded better" without asher.

blessings
Randall Buth

-- 
Randall Buth, PhD
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