Biblical Hebrew Forum

["James Spinti" <JSpinti AT Eisenbrauns.com>]

Isaac,

We've been around this ad infinitum. The comparative data, the MT
itself, all point to gemination. You have failed to provide any evidence
that is convincing to the contrary. Why would only one of all the
Semitic languages fail to have gemination?

James
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James Spinti
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-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Isaac Fried
Sent: Tuesday, February 08, 2011 2:16 PM
To: Rolf Furuli
Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] no to aspect

The claim of "gemination" is, in my opinion, a mere phantasy.  
Doubling a letter that is written only once amounts, I am afraid, to  
a heedless distortion of the biblical text.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Feb 8, 2011, at 2:53 AM, Rolf Furuli wrote:

> You are correct when you say that most Semitists view WAYYIQTOL as  
> perfective. But I would ask two questions on the basis of the  
> masoretic rules of pointing and vocalization: Could the gemination  
> of the YOD in the prefix and the position of the stress corroborate  
> the view that the WAY(Y)-prefix only is a conjunction that have a  
> conjunctive force, and not is a semantic marker making
WAYYIQTOL  
> different from YIQTOL?

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