Biblical Hebrew Forum

[fred burlingame <tensorpath AT gmail.com>]

Hello Nir:

All of my cards have been on the table.

Here they are again.

I am trying to figure out the reason for the two verb forms in the masoretic
text.

1. I agree with the opinion of Isaac:

a. suffixed verbs indicate past event.

b. prefixed verbs indicate future event.

c. vav prefixed verbs tend to reverse "a" & "b."

d. context often alters "a" - "c."

2. Proverbs 31:18 seems to furnish a prime example of "a" - "d" in
operation. That verse in context reveals the present tense to me.

3. Wide disagreement exists in the academic community about the purpose of
the two verb forms.

4. Whatever the true meaning of the two forms, wide agreement must exist in
2011 a.d., as to its meanings and functions. Why? Because Proverbs 31:18 and
other parts of the masoretic text are apparently deployed successfully for
communication each week, in congregations around the world.

5. It would be nice to know what all of those people in "4" above, hear when
proverbs 31:18 is sung or recited weekly:

a. past tense;

b. present tense;

c. future tense;

d. no tense.

And that's the beginning, the middle and the end of my story on this issue.

regards,

fred burlingame