Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Arnaud Fournet" <fournet.arnaud AT wanadoo.fr>]

"Isaac Fried" <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:
> 1. I am not aware of the existence in Hebrew of "langue" and "parole".
>
> 2. It is crystal clear that "There is no "gemination" in spoken  Hebrew". 
> Why not? Because it is not needed.
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Another Saussurian dichotomy is diachronic / synchronic.

It seems to me that you are denying the diachronic existence of geminates in 
*Ancient* Hebrew because your own speech in the XXIst century does not 
display them.

Are you claiming that your own speech is representative of Ancient Hebrew 
3500 years ago?

A
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> 2. I have never heard any spoken distinction between: -yamim (no 
> gemination), days (Gn 4:3) and -yammim (gemination), seas (Ps 8:9).
>
> 3. You are right all these claims are merely "well-grounded  traditions 
> (TRADITIONS!) within the Hebrew grammar".
>
> 4. I am still waiting to see a good "proof", within the Hebrew  language, 
> for an earlier existence of this spoken "gemination" (no  Arabic, please).
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The best proof seems to be that it is actually recorded in writing, or is it 
not?

Arnaud Fournet
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