Biblical Hebrew Forum

[fred burlingame <tensorpath AT gmail.com>]

Hello Barry:

Yes, it does not mean you composed your book in french.

But then again, monkfish alone makes a bouillabaisse .... not.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bouillabaisse

The combined numerous ingredients, however, both external and internal,
render the hebrew text of the new testament, the original document.

What's happening here in part; i mention a single verse (such isaiah 61:1);
and the response immediate = "that single verse proves nothing." I agree; it
is but one piece of the puzzle.

When all of the trees in the forest are observed however, a different
conclusion arrives.

Regards,

fred burlingame

On Mon, Oct 18, 2010 at 4:43 PM, Barry H. <nebarry AT verizon.net> wrote:

>
> ----- Original Message ----- From: "fred burlingame" <tensorpath AT gmail.com
> >
> To: "George Athas" <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>
> Cc: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Monday, October 18, 2010 4:30 PM
>
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] the hellenization of isaiah
>
>
>  Brevity on the other hand, renders the posts vulnerable to your type of
>>
> critique.
>
>> That being said, I would note that 937 quotations/references to the old
>>
> testament, by the new testament, appears more than significant to me.
>
> If I write a book on Les Miserables, and include 937 references from Les
> Miserables, does that mean I wrote my book in French?
>
> N.E. Barry Hofstetter, semper melius Latine sonat...
> Classics and Bible Instructor, TAA
> http://www.theamericanacademy.net
> (2010 Salvatori Excellence in Education Winner)
> V-P of Academic Affairs, TNARS
> bhofstetter AT tnars.net
> http://www.tnars.net
>
> http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog
> http://mysite.verizon.net/nebarry
>
>
>
>