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  • From: George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>
  • To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Jerusalem
  • Date: Thu, 8 Jul 2010 19:43:14 +1000

Thanks for the thoughts, Yigal. Does Demsky consider a shift for the toponyms
Adoraaim and Shaaraim? That is, does he propose that they originally may have
been Ador/Adoram and Shaar? Or is it that these particular toponyms are
simply known as being non-singular in form all along? The issue with
Jerusalem is that a shift does seem to have occurred.

I see your point about an Aramaism, but how do we account for the change in
the first half of the toponym (Ἱεροσόλυμα) to reflect a play on the word
temple?


GEORGE ATHAS
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
www.moore.edu.au



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