Biblical Hebrew Forum

[George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>]

Thanks for the thoughts, Yigal. Does Demsky consider a shift for the toponyms 
Adoraaim and Shaaraim? That is, does he propose that they originally may have 
been Ador/Adoram and Shaar? Or is it that these particular toponyms are 
simply known as being non-singular in form all along? The issue with 
Jerusalem is that a shift does seem to have occurred.

I see your point about an Aramaism, but how do we account for the change in 
the first half of the toponym (Ἱεροσόλυμα) to reflect a play on the word 
temple?


GEORGE ATHAS
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
www.moore.edu.au